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Section 4: Sample Selected-Response Questions
Agriculture, Food and Natural Resources 6–12 (272)

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This section presents some sample exam questions for you to review as part of your preparation for the exam. To demonstrate how each competency may be assessed, sample questions are accompanied by the competency that they measure. While studying, you may wish to read the competency before and after you consider each sample question. Please note that the competency statements do not appear on the actual exam.

For each sample exam question, there is a correct answer and a rationale for each answer option. The sample questions are included to illustrate the formats and types of questions you will see on the exam; however, your performance on the sample questions should not be viewed as a predictor of your performance on the actual exam.

Domain I—Foundations of Agricultural Education

Competency 001—The teacher understands the foundations of agricultural education.

1. Which of the following is the most important consideration in choosing members for an agricultural advisory committee?

  1. Members should represent the diverse aspects of the community.
  2. Members should be employed in the agricultural industry.
  3. Members should have a background in education.
  4. Members should be on a local school board.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because members for an agriculture advisory committee should represent the diverse aspects of the community. Option B is incorrect because members of an agriculture advisory committee do not have to be employed in the agricultural industry. Option C is incorrect because members of an agriculture advisory committee are not required to have a background in education. Option D is incorrect because members of an agriculture advisory committee do not have to be on a local school board.

2. Which of the following acts is also known as the Land-Grant College Act?

  1. Clarke–McNary Act
  2. Vocational Education Act of 1963
  3. Smith–Hughes Act
  4. Morrill Act of 1862
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because the Morrill Act of 1862 is known as the Land-Grant College Act. Option A is incorrect because the Clark-McNary Act dealt with enlarging and improving the National Forest Service. Option B is incorrect because the Vocational Act of 1963 authorized a major expansion and redirection of vocational education. Option C is incorrect because the Smith–Hughes Act established vocational agriculture courses.

Competency 003—The teacher understands how to advise and assist students in career planning and development and how to promote student development through supervised agricultural experiences (SAEs).

3. Which of the following is a teacher responsibility in assisting students to plan, implement and manage their Supervised Agricultural Experience (SAE)?

  1. Providing classroom instruction on choosing an SAE
  2. Buying the students show animals
  3. Finding an agricultural job for the student
  4. Scheduling the hours for each student’s SAE
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because teachers do provide classroom instruction on choosing an SAE. Option B is incorrect because teachers do not buy the students show animals. Option C is incorrect because teachers do not find agricultural jobs for the students. Option D is incorrect because teachers do not schedule the hours for each student’s SAE.

Competency 004—The teacher understands how to promote student growth through student leadership development organizations.

4. Which THREE of the following are divisions of an FFA chapter’s Program of Activities?

  1. Chapter Development
  2. School Development
  3. Community Development
  4. Student Development
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Options A, C, and D are correct because they are divisions of an FFA chapter’s Program of Activities. Option B is incorrect because school development is not a division of an FFA chapter’s Program of Activities.

Domain II—Agribusiness and Economics

Competency 005—The teacher understands agricultural entrepreneurship, business management and ethical issues in agricultural businesses.

5. Which of the following organizational structures is most useful when there is pressure for shared resources?

  1. Project organization
  2. Matrix organization
  3. Functional organization
  4. Departmental organization
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because a matrix organization is most useful when there is pressure for shared resources due to reporting lines, which are both horizontal and vertical. Option A is incorrect because a project organization is not the most useful when there is pressure for shared resources because it is structured mostly by area of activity. Option C is incorrect because a functional organization is not the most useful when there is pressure for shared resources due to reporting relationships that are based on specialty. Option D is incorrect because a departmental organization is not the most useful when there is pressure for shared resources due to reporting relationships that are based mainly on function.

6. Which of the following agricultural market structures spends the most on advertising to differentiate its product?

  1. Perfect competition
  2. Monopolistic competition
  3. Monopoly
  4. Oligopoly
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because a monopolistic competition agricultural firm spends the most on advertising to differentiate its product. Option A is incorrect because a perfect competition agricultural firm does not spend the most on advertising to differentiate its product. Option C is incorrect because a monopoly does not spend the most on advertising to differentiate its product. Option D is incorrect because an oligopoly does not spend the most on advertising to differentiate its product.

Competency 006—The teacher understands the application of economic and marketing principles to agricultural enterprises.

7. Which of the following is considered a physical function in agricultural marketing systems?

  1. Buying
  2. Selling
  3. Financing
  4. Processing
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because processing is considered a physical function in agricultural marketing systems. Option A is incorrect because buying is considered an exchange function in agricultural marketing systems. Option B is incorrect because selling is considered an exchange function in agricultural marketing systems. Option C is incorrect because financing is considered a facilitating function in agricultural marketing systems.

8. Which of the following is an example of a retail market?

  1. A livestock auction
  2. Video merchandising
  3. A roadside farmers market
  4. An agricultural commodity market
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because a roadside farmers market, which sells directly to consumers, is an example of a retail market. Option A is incorrect because a livestock auction is not an example of a retail market; it is a public sale where goods are sold to the highest bidder. Option B is incorrect because video merchandising is not an example of a retail market because sellers are able to create richly engaging experiences, merchandising products in a smarter, more intuitive way. Option D is incorrect because an agricultural commodity market is not an example of a retail market because it is a physical or virtual marketplace for buying, selling, and trading agricultural products.

Domain III—Plant and Soil Science

Competency 007—The teacher understands and applies principles of soil science.

9. Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a sandy, coarse-textured soil?

  1. Allows water to penetrate rapidly
  2. Has a high level of plant nutrients
  3. Allows pathogenic organisms to leach out quickly
  4. Has good aeration
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Options A, C, and D are correct because they are characteristics of a sandy, coarse-textured soil. They allow water to penetrate rapidly, pathogenic organisms to leach out quickly, and air to circulate easily. Option B is incorrect because this type of soil does not have a high level of plant nutrients.

10. The three numbers represented on a bag of fertilizer (e.g., 16-20-10) indicate the percentage of the primary plant nutrients in which of the following orders?

  1. P-K-N
  2. N-P-K
  3. K-P-N
  4. N-K-P
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because N-P-K indicates the percentage of the primary plant nutrients in the correct order on a bag of fertilizer. Options A, C and D are incorrect because they do not indicate the percentage of the primary plant nutrients in the correct order on a bag of fertilizer.

11. If present in soils in equal masses, which of the following, when increased, will increase the soil cation-exchange capacity the most?

  1. Large, negatively charged particles
  2. Small, negatively charged particles
  3. Large, positively charged particles
  4. Small, positively charged particles
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because small, negatively charged particles have the greatest surface-to-volume ratio and tend to increase the cation-exchange capacity of the soil the most. Option A is incorrect because large, negatively charged particles do not have the greatest surface-to-volume ratio and do not increase the cation-exchange capacity of the soil as much as small, negatively charged particles do. Option C is incorrect because large, positively charged particles do not increase the cation-exchange capacity of the soil as much as small, negatively charged particles do. Option D is incorrect because small, positively charged particles do not increase the cation-exchange capacity of the soil as much as small, negatively charged particles do.

Competency 008—The teacher understands basic plant classification, morphology, physiology and genetics.

12. Which part of a plant transports water and dissolved minerals up from the plant’s roots?

  1. Cambium
  2. Epidermis
  3. Phloem
  4. Xylem
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because the xylem is the part of a plant that transports water and dissolved minerals up from the roots. Option A is incorrect because the cambium is a meristematic tissue that produces xylem and phloem. Option B is incorrect because the epidermis is the outermost layer of cells covering the leaves and young parts of a plant. Option C is incorrect because the phloem is a plant tissue that carries food throughout a plant.

13. Which of the following is most closely related to the movement of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to a region of lower water concentration?

  1. Osmosis
  2. Capillary action
  3. Transpiration
  4. Respiration
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because osmosis is the movement of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to a region of lower water concentration. Option B is incorrect because capillary action is movement of water within the spaces of a porous material due to the forces of adhesion, cohesion, and surface tension. Option C is incorrect because transpiration is the evaporation of water into the atmosphere from the leaves of plants. Option D is incorrect because respiration is the process that oxidizes organic compounds, releasing the energy that is used in metabolic processes.

Competency 010—The teacher understands horticulture, floriculture and hydroponics.

14. Which of the following is a method of exterior design using plants that conserve water?

  1. Edible landscaping
  2. Xeriscaping
  3. Hardscaping
  4. Naturalization
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Option B is correct because xeriscaping refers to landscaping that conserves water. Option A is incorrect because edible landscaping is the practical integration of food plants within an ornamental or decorative setting. Option C is incorrect because hardscaping is the use of inanimate elements of landscaping, especially any masonry work or woodwork. Option D is incorrect because naturalization is allowing the landscape to become more natural by planting trees and shrubs that are found growing naturally in the area.

Domain IV—Animal Science

Competency 011—The teacher understands the basic animal classification, anatomy, physiology and genetics of various animals such as cattle, horses, swine, poultry and companion animals.

15. Which breed of sheep first originated in the United States and is known for sheep that are large with white faces and wool on their legs, being useful in crossbred market lamb production, and producing heavy yields with medium wool fleeces?

  1. Rambouillet
  2. Columbia
  3. Southdown
  4. Suffolk
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because Columbia sheep originated in the United States, and this breed is known for sheep that are large with white faces and wool on their legs. Option A is incorrect because Rambouillet sheep originated in France, have fine wool and are raised for their meat. Option C is incorrect because Southdown sheep originated in Britain and are known primarily for meat. Option D is incorrect because Suffolk sheep originated in Britain and are known for their meat and black faces.

16. Which of the following swine breeds is best described as having erect ears and a heavily muscled black body with a white belt around the shoulders?

  1. Landrace
  2. Berkshire
  3. Hampshire
  4. Poland China
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because the Hampshire breed is best described as having erect ears and a heavily muscled black body with a white belt around the shoulders. Option A is incorrect because the Landrace breed are white in color, have a rather fine hair coat, long snouts and heavy drooping ears. They have long bodies, deep smooth sides and a noticeable lack of excess fat and wrinkles. Option B is incorrect because the Berkshire breed is best described as black with white points (legs, face and tail) and a short neck and short, blocky legs with strong feet. Option D is incorrect because the Poland China breed is among the largest of swine. These swine are usually black; some have white spots on different parts of the body, particularly on the feet, nose and tail.

17. Which of the following breeds of cattle is known for producing meat with the highest amount of marbling?

  1. Simmental
  2. Charolais
  3. Brahman
  4. Angus
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Option D is correct because the Angus breed is known for producing meat with the highest amount of marbling. Option A is incorrect because the Simmental breed is known for its weight-gaining ability and milk production. Option B is incorrect because the Charolais breed is known for fattening for high finished weight. Option C is incorrect because the Brahman breed is known for its resistance to insects and tolerance to heat.

18. Which of the following cattle breeds produces the largest volume of milk?

  1. Guernsey
  2. Holstein
  3. Brown Swiss
  4. Milking Shorthorn
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Option B is correct because the Holstein cattle breed produces the largest volume of milk. Options A, C and D are incorrect because the Guernsey, Brown Swiss and Milking Shorthorn cattle breeds do not produce larger volumes of milk than the Holstein.

Competency 012—The teacher understands animal production and management of various animals such as cattle, horses, swine, poultry and companion animals.

19. Which of the following is the most likely age range for puberty in a Holstein heifer expected to calve at 24 months?

  1. 6–7 months of age
  2. 9–11 months of age
  3. 14–15 months of age
  4. 16–17 months of age
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because 9–11 months of age is closest to the age that a Holstein heifer should reach puberty in order to be inseminated several months later and calve at 24 months. Options A, C and D are incorrect because the age range in A is too early and the age ranges in C and D are too late for a Holstein heifer to reach puberty in order to be inseminated several months later and calve at 24 months.

20. The period of time during which an animal is pregnant is called

  1. parturition.
  2. gestation.
  3. estrus.
  4. ovulation.
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Option B is correct because gestation is the period of time during which an animal is pregnant. Option A is incorrect because parturition is also called labor and delivery. Option C is incorrect because estrus is the periodic state of sexual excitability during which the female of most mammals is capable of conceiving. Option D is incorrect because ovulation is the period during the reproductive cycle when the ovum is released.

21. Which of the following best describes the correct location for administering a subcutaneous (SQ) injection?

  1. Under the tongue
  2. Under the skin
  3. Into a muscle
  4. Into a vein
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because a subcutaneous (SQ) injection is administered under the skin. Option A is incorrect because under the tongue is not the correct route for an SQ injection; under the tongue is sublingual administration. Option C is incorrect because into the muscle is not the correct route for an SQ injection; into the muscle is intramuscular administration. Option D is incorrect because into a vein is not the correct route for an SQ injection; into a vein is intravenous administration (IV).

22. Which management technique can help reduce stress and aggressive behavior when loading cattle?

  1. Using a curved chute with solid fences to drive them to the desired destination
  2. Allowing the cattle to remain side by side so they can see each other
  3. Using an electric prod to make them move quickly
  4. Allowing enough room so the cattle can turn around
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because using a curved chute with solid fences to drive cattle will help reduce stress and aggressive behavior when loading cattle. Option B is incorrect because allowing cattle to remain side by side increases the likelihood of cattle turning around and aggressive behavior. Option C is incorrect because using an electric prod to make cattle move quickly will increase stress and aggressive behavior when loading cattle. Option D is incorrect because allowing cattle enough room to turn around will increase stress and aggressive behavior when loading cattle due to disruption of the orderly flow of cattle.

23. In selecting a bull to use with heifers in a commercial cattle operation, which of the following expected progeny differences (EPDs) should be considered most strongly?

  1. Longevity
  2. Weaning weight
  3. Calving ease
  4. Yearling weight
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. A heifer is a young cow that has not had its first calf. Therefore the heifer should be mated with a bull that is known to produce smaller calves, resulting in an easier delivery or "calving ease." Therefore, "calving ease" is the most strongly considered EPD when selecting a bull to use with heifers in a commercial cattle operation. Options A, B and C are incorrect because longevity, weaning weight, and yearling weight are not as important EPD considerations as calving ease when selecting a bull to use with heifers in a commercial cattle operation.

Domain V—Agricultural Mechanics, Engineering and Technology

Competency 014—The teacher understands and applies mechanical principles and power technology in agriculture.

24. When using power equipment in the agricultural laboratory, which type of protection is most critical for all students?

  1. Hearing protection
  2. Eye protection
  3. Hand protection
  4. Clothing protection
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because when using any power equipment in the agricultural laboratory, eye protection is critical for all students. Options A, C and D are incorrect because when using certain power equipment in the agricultural laboratory, protection for hearing, hands and clothing is important, but usually not as critical as eye protection.

25. What is the best way to clean the tip of a soldering iron?

  1. Scraping the tip against a wet sponge after the iron is fully heated
  2. Soaking the iron in flux for a few hours before each use
  3. Using a metal file to file off the remaining solder
  4. Submerging the tip in hot soapy water overnight
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because scraping the tip of a hot soldering iron against a wet sponge is the best way to clean the tip. Option B is incorrect because soaking a soldering iron in flux for a few hours before each use is not the best way to clean the tip of a soldering iron. Option C is incorrect because using a metal file to file off remaining solder is not the best way to clean the tip of a soldering iron. Option D is incorrect because submerging the tip of a soldering iron in hot soapy water over night is not the best way to clean the tip of a soldering iron.

Competency 015—The teacher understands agricultural construction and metal fabrication.

26. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a concrete slump test?

  1. To determine the overall strength of a batch of concrete
  2. To determine the quality of a batch of concrete
  3. To determine the curing time for fresh concrete
  4. To determine the consistency of fresh concrete
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because a concrete slump test is used to determine the consistency of fresh concrete. Option A is incorrect because a concrete cylinder compression test determines the overall strength of a batch of concrete. Option B is incorrect because a series of tests (e.g., air content, temperature, yield, density) would be needed to determine the quality of a batch of concrete. Option C is incorrect because stripping strength, 7-day strength, and 28-day strength tests would in part determine the curing time for fresh concrete.

Domain VI—Natural Resources and Environmental Science

Competency 017—The teacher understands ecological principles, natural resources and the impact of agriculture on the environment.

27. Which of the following statements best describes consumers in a food web?

  1. They make their own food.
  2. They get energy directly from the Sun.
  3. They exhibit a heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
  4. They form the base of the trophic pyramid.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because consumers exhibit a heterotrophic mode of nutrition, which best describes consumers in a food web. Option A is incorrect because consumers do not make their own food. Option B is incorrect because consumers do not get energy directly from the Sun. Option D is incorrect because consumers do not form the base of the trophic pyramid.

Competency 018—The teacher understands the principles of ecosystem management.

28. Which ecosystem type occupies the most acreage in the United States?

  1. Wetland
  2. Urban land
  3. Forest land
  4. Cultivated land
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. Forest land occupies about 29 percent of the acreage in the United States. Option A is incorrect because wetlands occupy about 5 percent of the acreage of the United States. Option B is incorrect because urban lands occupy about 3 percent of the acreage in the United States. Option D is incorrect because cultivated lands occupy about 20 percent of the acreage in the United States.

29. Which of the following best describes a well-managed farm pond for fish production?

  1. Enough phytoplankton so that the water has a green tint
  2. Clean, crystal clear water
  3. Rooted emergent vegetation covering most of the pond
  4. A layer of filamentous algae covering the surface of the pond
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because a well-managed pond will have a green tint indicating there are enough phytoplankton to maintain a large fish population. Option B is incorrect because a pond with clean, crystal clear water will not have enough phytoplankton to support a large population of fish. Option C is incorrect because rooted emergent vegetation covering most of the pond will reduce the nutrients available to phytoplankton and make it difficult to harvest the fish. Option D is incorrect because a layer of filamentous algae covering the surface of the pond may result in a reduced concentration of dissolved oxygen in the pond, which could reduce the fish population.

30. Which legislative act banned the interstate transportation and sale of wildlife and wildlife by-products that have been illegally taken or possessed?

  1. The Lacey Act of 1900
  2. The Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956
  3. The Pittman-Robertson Act of 1937
  4. The Endangered Species Act of 1973
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because the Lacey Act of 1900 banned the interstate transportation and sale of wildlife and wildlife by-products that were obtained illegally. Option B is incorrect because the Fish and Wildlife Act of 1956 established a comprehensive national fish, shellfish and wildlife resources policy. Option C is incorrect because the Pittman-Robertson Act of 1937 created an excise tax that provides funds to each state to manage wildlife habitats. Option D is incorrect because the 1973 Endangered Species Act provided for the conservation of ecosystems on which threatened and endangered species of fish, wildlife, and plants depend.

31. Which of the following plant groups would support a healthy Bobwhite quail population?

  1. Coastal Bermuda and Johnson grass pasture
  2. Western ragweed, berry vines, and bluestem
  3. Western ragweed and coastal Bermuda
  4. Cotton, grain sorghum, and peanuts
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because Western ragweed, berry vines, and bluestem would support a healthy Bobwhite quail population. Option A is incorrect because coastal Bermuda and Johnson grass pasture are better suited for livestock. Option C is incorrect because Western ragweed and coastal Bermuda are better suited for livestock. Option D is incorrect because cotton, grain sorghum, and peanuts are mainly agricultural products and are not used to support animal populations.

Domain VII—Food Science and Processing

Competency 019—The teacher understands the processing, packaging, quality analysis and marketing of food and its by-products.

32. Of the following, which THREE are USDA quality grades for eggs?

  1. AA
  2. A
  3. BB
  4. B
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Options A, B, and D are correct because AA, A, and B are quality grades for eggs. Option C is incorrect because BB is not a quality grade for eggs.