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Section 4: Sample Selected-Response Questions
Social Studies 7–12 (232)

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This section presents some sample exam questions for you to review as part of your preparation for the exam. To demonstrate how each competency may be assessed, sample questions are accompanied by the competency that they measure. While studying, you may wish to read the competency before and after you consider each sample question. Please note that the competency statements do not appear on the actual exam.

For each sample exam question, there is a correct answer and a rationale for each answer option. The sample questions are included to illustrate the formats and types of questions you will see on the exam; however, your performance on the sample questions should not be viewed as a predictor of your performance on the actual exam.

Domain I—World History

Competency 001—(Ancient World Civilizations): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments in ancient world civilizations, factors influencing the development of ancient world civilizations and major characteristics and contributions of ancient world civilizations.

1. Most early civilizations of Afro-Eurasia arose in physical environments that featured

  1. abundant temperate grasslands that could be used for the pasture of livestock.
  2. easy access to existing major long-distance trade networks.
  3. proximity to a reliable freshwater source that could be used for crop irrigation.
  4. plentiful wild game, fish and other food sources available for hunting and foraging.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. Most major early civilizations of Afro-Eurasia — the civilization of the Nile Valley in Egypt, the Mesopotamian civilizations, the Harappan civilization of the Indus River valley and civilization of the Huang He valley in China — developed in areas of limited natural rainfall but relatively reliable and seasonally abundant freshwater supplied by the flooding of major rivers. In such areas, the relatively mild climate together with the water and fertilizing silt deposited by the rivers combined to produce very high agricultural yields, which, in turn, allowed these regions to sustain the large populations that gave rise to early civilizations. Option A is incorrect. It describes the typical environment of the steppes of east-central Europe, north-central Asia and regions on the fringes of the Fertile Crescent in southwestern Asia. Historically, such regions have been the homelands of nomadic peoples, who might occasionally become the founders of large powerful empires (e.g., the Mongol Empire) but are usually not associated with the agrarian-based early civilizations. Option B is incorrect. The proximity to well-established trade networks could be a sustaining factor for an already established civilization, and most major civilizations created their own network of trade routes connecting them to other civilizations. But the existence of a long-distance trade network is not a prerequisite for the formation of civilizations and some early river valley civilizations, such as Harappa and Shang, appear to have emerged in relative isolation. Option D is incorrect. Physical environments such as the one described have existed in premodern times in several places around the world (notably in the Pacific Northwest of the United States and Canada) and, while they have tended to support relatively large and politically complex societies, they are not typically associated with the early river civilizations of Afro-Eurasia.

Read the excerpt below from the Code of Hammurabi of ancient Babylon and answer the question that follows.

If anyone is committing a robbery and is caught, then he shall be put to death. If the robber is not caught, then shall he who was robbed claim under oath the amount of his loss; then shall the community . . . on whose ground and territory and in whose domain [the robbery took place] compensate him for the goods stolen.

2. The excerpt above from the Code of Hammurabi suggests that

  1. Babylonian law applied both the concept of individual responsibility and the concept of collective responsibility in assigning penalties for crimes.
  2. penalties for crimes in ancient Babylonian society were dependent largely on the social status of the criminal.
  3. Babylonian society was plagued by unusually high rates of crimes against personal property.
  4. punishments for crimes in Babylonian society were mostly designed to protect the property of the king and members of the nobility.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct. The excerpted provisions from the code show that the crime of robbery could be punished either by the execution of the offender or, if the offender was not known, by requiring that the community pool its resources to compensate the victim of the crime. Such collective responsibility provisions were fairly common in premodern legal systems because they were thought to provide an incentive for local communities to cooperate with authorities in the investigation of crimes. Option B is incorrect. In other provisions of the Code of Hammurabi, the penalties for crimes do often hinge on the social status of the victim (but not of the criminal); for instance, different penalties are prescribed for causing death or bodily injury to a free-born Babylonian male versus a slave, but the provisions quoted here make no mention of social status. Option C is incorrect. Although sometimes it is possible to use the activities penalized in legal codes to draw inferences about the social realities in ancient times, it is usually not possible to generalize about the prevalence of specific crimes or classes of crimes based on their legal proscription. Option D is incorrect. The legal provisions excerpted in the text are not limited to crimes against the property of the king or the members of the nobility. So, while Babylonian law may well have provided for particularly harsh punishments for such crimes (in common with other premodern legal systems), that is not a conclusion supported by the passage.

3. In which of the following ways did the migrations of Bantu-speaking peoples into many regions of sub-Saharan Africa in the period 1000 B.C. to 500 A.D. most fundamentally affect the continent?

  1. The migrations led to the diffusion of many Egyptian traditions
  2. The migrations triggered the spread of Islam
  3. The migrations helped establish a large empire of Bantu speakers that controlled much of sub-Saharan Africa
  4. The migrations led to the spread of settled agriculture
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct. While most groups living in central and southern Africa before the Bantu migrations subsisted largely by hunting and foraging, the Bantu-speaking peoples are believed to have adopted agriculture and cattle herding before they began migrating out of their ancestral homeland in west-central Africa. The Bantu-speaking peoples’ agricultural and pastoralist life is believed to have given them a significant advantage as they competed for land and resources with pre-Bantu central and southern African groups, such as the forest peoples of the Congo basin and the Khoisan peoples of southern Africa. Option A is incorrect. The ancestral homeland of the Bantu-speaking peoples is believed to have been in west-central Africa (in present-day Nigeria and Cameroon), far from Egypt and the Egypt-influenced cultures of Nubia/Sudan in north-east Africa. Option B is incorrect. The Bantu migrations began long before the arrival of Islam in Africa and the original Bantu-speaking peoples are believed to have had polytheist and/or animist religious beliefs. While in later periods many Bantu-speaking peoples adopted Islam (notably the Swahili peoples of the east African coast), they did so centuries after their initial migrations. Option C is incorrect. The Bantu migrations were primarily a demographic process, not a political event. Some Bantu-speaking peoples eventually established powerful states (for example, the Kingdom of Kongo in the period circa 1400–1500 A.D. or the Zulu Kingdom of the early 1800s), but no single Bantu state ever came close to controlling much of sub-Saharan Africa.

Competency 002—(World History from 600 A.D. to 1450 A.D.): The teacher understands significant historical events, developments and traditional points of reference in world history from 600 A.D. to 1450 A.D.

4. Which of the following was an effect of the Crusades on western Europe?

  1. The Crusaders’ daily interactions with Muslims and Eastern Orthodox Christians led the papacy to adopt an official policy of greater tolerance for diverse religious beliefs and practices
  2. The Crusades’ initial successes led to a wave of migration of German and French peasants to the Middle East and the depopulation of some regions of western Europe
  3. The Crusades led to an increased trade between western Europe, Byzantium and the Muslim states of the eastern Mediterranean, thereby promoting European economic expansion
  4. The Crusades led to a decrease in the power and prestige of European monarchies, as many monarchs were absent from their kingdoms for long periods of time while fighting in the Crusades
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. The Crusades had a net positive economic effect on the development of western Europe. The Crusader states served important trade entrepôts and increased both the volume and the variety of trade between Asia and western Europe. The Crusades were beneficial for the economies of Italian maritime city-states, such as Venice and Genoa, whose merchants established themselves as the primary European intermediaries for the long-distance Asian luxury trade with Europe. The Crusades also indirectly contributed to the development and growth of credit in western Europe, as many rulers had to seek private loans to finance their armies. Option A is incorrect. Daily interactions between western Europeans and Muslims and/or Eastern Orthodox Christians did occur as a result of the Crusades, and some interactions may have led to a more tolerant and amicable coexistence. But the Papacy’s official position on relations with other religious groups did not become more tolerant as a result of the Crusades. The Papacy used the Crusades to promote religious intolerance, most notably against Muslims, but also against Jews living in Europe, whose systematic persecution is generally considered to have begun with the Crusades. Option B is incorrect. Except for the so-called People’s Crusade of 1096, motivated in part by peasants’ desire to acquire land, the Crusades did not entail large-scale peasant migrations. No region of western Europe suffered serious depopulation as a result of the Crusades. Option D is incorrect. Historians have argued that the Crusades provided a boost to European feudal monarchies by allowing monarchs to establish a firmer hold of royal revenues and exercise closer control over potentially unruly vassals. Going on a Crusade was seen as a noble or heroic undertaking, and crusading monarchs could expect to see their legitimacy increased rather than decreased. Crusading monarchs, most notably Richard I of England, did leave their countries for long periods, but such absences were rarely detrimental to the monarchy over the long run.

Competency 003—(World History from 1450 A.D. to 1750 A.D.): The teacher understands significant historical events, developments and traditional points of reference in world history from 1450 A.D. to 1750 A.D.

5. Which of the following statements best describes a major impact of the Columbian Exchange on Europe?

  1. New food crops from the Western Hemisphere promoted better health and longer life spans in Europe
  2. Immigration from the Western Hemisphere significantly altered the ethnic makeup of Europe
  3. New diseases from the Western Hemisphere killed close to 90 percent of Europe’s pre-Columbian population
  4. New draft animals from the Western Hemisphere greatly increased the productivity of European farmers
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Option A is correct. New World crops such as corn, potatoes, beans, tomatoes and peppers began to be widely cultivated in Europe in the 1600s and 1700s and became important sources of carbohydrates, protein and vitamins in the diets of Europeans. Some New World plants, such as corn, also became significant fodder crops in Europe, giving a boost to European meat and dairy production and consumption. Option B is incorrect. With the exception of a few individuals taken by early European explorers back to Europe, American Indians did not migrate east across the Atlantic and did not alter the ethnic makeup of Europe. Option C is incorrect. Syphilis is the only major disease believed by many scholars to have originated in the Americas and to have spread to Europe as part of the Columbian Exchange. But despite its relatively high mortality rates and the absence of effective treatment until the twentieth century, syphilis did not kill a large percentage of Europeans. Option D is incorrect. With the exception of the llama (domesticated and used to transport goods in the Andean highlands of South America), pre-Columbian New World societies did not use draft animals. Instead, European settlers brought Eastern Hemisphere draft animals, such as donkeys, cattle and horses, to the Americas.

6. Which of the following was the most significant effect on Europe of the Ottoman conquest of Constantinople (1453) and the eastern Mediterranean (1516–1517)?

  1. The Ottoman Empire took control of most of the major trade routes connecting Europe to India and China.
  2. The Ottoman Empire began conscripting young Balkan Christian boys to become Janissaries.
  3. Ottoman missionaries spread Islam throughout the Mediterranean region.
  4. The threat of further Ottoman territorial expansion led to the political unification of much of central and western Europe.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because the Ottoman conquest of Constantinople in 1453, followed by the Levant and Egypt in 1517, gave the empire control of most of the major trade routes used by Europeans to import luxury items, such as spices, from India, China and the East Indies. This near-monopoly was short-lived, however; European merchants and explorers soon expanded direct sea trade with South and East Asia via the newly established trade routes around the southern tip of Africa. Option B is incorrect because although the Ottoman government did in fact rely on Balkan Christian conscripts to fill the ranks of the Janissaries (the sultan’s elite military units), this policy predated the conquest of Constantinople and affected a relatively small number of people in Europe. Option C is incorrect because the Ottoman conquest resulted in the spread of Islam only to parts of the Balkans, not the entire Mediterranean region. Option D is incorrect because although many European leaders and political thinkers called for unification in response to the threat of further Ottoman advances, Europe remained politically fragmented.

Competency 004—(World History from 1750 A.D. to the Present): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments in world history from 1750 A.D. to the present.

7. In contrast to the First Industrial Revolution, the Second Industrial Revolution was characterized mostly by

  1. innovations in the textile industry and steam power.
  2. innovations in mass production and electrification.
  3. heavy reliance on child labor.
  4. heavy reliance on forced labor.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. The Second Industrial Revolution, which began in Europe and the United States in the second half of the nineteenth century, saw the first extensive use of electricity in industry as well as extensive automation of production, the widespread use of powered equipment and more standardization of industrial processes. Option A is incorrect because innovations in textile production and the use of steam power are more characteristic of the First Industrial Revolution that began in Britain in the late 1700s. Option C is incorrect because many governments actually took steps to curb the use of child labor in industry during the Second Industrial Revolution. Option D is incorrect because both industrial revolutions relied on wage labor as opposed to forced labor.

8. The Chinese government responded to the 1989 protests in Tiananmen Square by

  1. halting all trade with Europe and the United States.
  2. appeasing protesters by holding democratic elections.
  3. forcibly dispersing the demonstrations with tanks and troops.
  4. calling for a session of the United Nations Security Council to condemn the protests.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. Concerned that the student-led protests in Tiananmen Square were growing larger and spreading across the country, the Chinese Communist Party leadership declared martial law in late May 1989 and mobilized the army to clear the square of protesters. By June 4, the student demonstrations in the square had been dispersed, with a large number of casualties among the protesters. Option A is incorrect. Because the Chinese Communist Party had only made its tentative first steps toward economic liberalization in 1988, its trade with Europe and the United States at the time was limited. Halting trade would not have had any significant impact on the student protests and was not a response that the Chinese leadership contemplated seriously. Option B is incorrect. Although the students’ protests were pro-democratic in a broad sense, the student leaders realized that demanding fair democratic elections in 1989 China was an unrealistic goal. Therefore the movement’s stated goals were centered mostly on limiting government corruption and economic mismanagement. Before repressing the demonstration, the government considered making various concessions, but they did not include democratic elections. Option D is incorrect. Many world leaders, including the UN Secretary General, criticized or condemned the action of the Chinese government following the dispersal of the protests, but the Chinese government itself did not seek a UN condemnation of the protests, preferring to treat them as a matter of domestic Chinese policy.

Domain II—U.S. History

Competency 005—(Exploration and Colonization): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments in the exploration and colonization of North America and the development of colonial society.

9. Which of the following groups of people constituted the main source of labor for the Chesapeake colonies before 1660?

  1. Enslaved Africans
  2. American Indians
  3. Landowning families
  4. Indentured servants
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct. Indentured servants were the main source of labor in the Chesapeake colonies before 1660. Indentured servants were typically people who wished to emigrate but who could not afford to pay for the voyage to Virginia. People in this situation often agreed to work for a landowner for a fixed term (usually seven years) in return for the cost of their passage. After 1660, laws were put into place that defined slavery by race and as a lifelong status, greatly decreasing the need to rely on indentured servants. Option A is incorrect because enslaved Africans became the main source of labor in the Chesapeake colonies only after 1660, mainly as a result of laws put into place making slavery racial and lifelong. In addition, the cost of passage from England began to decrease in the late 1600s, and thus fewer emigrants had to indenture themselves on arrival in the colonies. Option B is incorrect. American Indians were not a significant source of labor in the colonies. Efforts by colonists to enslave the native population proved ineffective. Option C is incorrect. Landowning families controlled the main source of labor; they were not the main source of labor themselves.

10. The establishment of the House of Burgesses in 1619 was significant because it was the first

  1. Protestant church founded in the English colonies.
  2. assembly of elected representatives of English colonists in North America.
  3. instance of democratic decision making at a New England town hall meeting.
  4. stock exchange set up by the English colonists in North America.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. The House of Burgesses was the first assembly of elected representatives of English colonists in North America. The first meeting was held in Jamestown, Virginia, in 1619 as part of an effort to make conditions in the colony more agreeable for the inhabitants. Option A is incorrect because the House of Burgesses was not a religious establishment, but rather a political one. Option C is incorrect. The House of Burgesses was in Virginia, not New England, and was an assembly of elected representatives, not an open town meeting. Option D is incorrect. The first stock exchange in the original colonies was located in Philadelphia. The House of Burgesses was a political institution rather than a financial institution.

Competency 006—(Revolutionary Era and the Early Years of the Republic): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments of the Revolutionary Era and the early years of the Republic, including the foundations of representative government in the United States.

11. The British government issued the Proclamation of 1763 primarily as a way to

  1. help pay for the cost of the French and Indian War.
  2. reassert Britain’s claims to the lands of eastern Canada.
  3. prevent costly conflicts between colonists and Native Americans.
  4. impose British law on the Indian nations west of the Appalachian Mountains.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. The Proclamation of 1763 was issued at the end of the French and Indian war and forbade colonists from settling past the Appalachian Mountains. The main purpose of the proclamation was to stabilize relations with American Indians through regulation of trade, settlement and land purchases on the western frontier. Option A is incorrect because, although one result of the French and Indian War was the imposition of new taxes on the colonies, it was not a main reason for the proclamation. Option B is incorrect because the defeat of the French had already established British claims to eastern Canada, and the proclamation did not deal with this issue. Option D is incorrect because the proclamation was intended to create more stable relations with American Indians, in part by keeping British colonists and American Indians separate. The proclamation did not seek to impose British law on Indians living west of the Appalachians.

12. In agreeing to the Three-Fifths Compromise at the Constitutional Convention, the framers delayed reaching a clear solution to which of the following issues?

  1. The right of women to vote
  2. The protection of individual rights
  3. The future of slavery
  4. The balance of power in Congress between large and small states
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. The Three-Fifths Compromise was a compromise between representatives of northern and southern states at the Constitutional Convention. According to the agreement, each slave was to be counted as three-fifths of a person for purposes of calculating population and apportionment in the House of Representatives. The compromise delayed dealing with the future of slavery because it implicitly recognized the existence of slavery and it also increased the power of the slave states, but it did not definitively establish the legality of slavery in national law. Option A is incorrect because the issue of women’s suffrage was not the subject of the Three-Fifths Compromise. Option B is incorrect because the protection of individual rights was not dealt with in the Three-Fifths Compromise. Option D is incorrect. The balance of power in Congress between small and large states was decided with the Great Compromise (or Connecticut Compromise), which created a bicameral legislature.

Competency 007—(Westward Expansion, the Civil War and Reconstruction): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments related to westward expansion, the Civil War and Reconstruction.

Use the excerpt below from a Georgia newspaper in 1856 to answer the question that follows.

Free Society! We sicken at the name. What is it but a conglomeration of greasy mechanics, filthy operatives, small-fisted farmers, and moon-struck theorists? . . . The prevailing class one meets [with in the North] is that of mechanics struggling to be genteel, and small farmers who do their own drudgery; and yet are hardly fit for association with a southern gentleman’s body servant.

13. The newspaper article quoted above could best be used to illustrate which aspect of American life in the late 1850s?

  1. The growing threat of slave rebellions in the South
  2. The increasing degree of social mobility in the Northern and Southern sections of the country
  3. The growing hostility between the Northern and Southern sections of the country
  4. The increasing economic interdependence of the Northern and Southern states
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. The excerpt from a Georgia newspaper in 1856 exemplifies increasing sectional tension over the issue of slavery versus free labor in the 1850s. It also highlights cultural differences about ideas on class between the North and the South. Option A is incorrect because although slaveholders did fear slave rebellions, the article cited is not addressing that issue. Slave rebellions had taken place before the 1850s, such as Nat Turner’s rebellion in 1831. Option B is incorrect because social mobility increased prior to the Civil War primarily in the North and much less so in the South. Greater social mobility in the North was possible because of industrial advancements and the greater availability of jobs and opportunities outside of agriculture. Option D is incorrect. While it is true that there was a degree of interdependency between the Northern and Southern economies — for instance, textile mills in the North used Southern cotton, and the Northern states supplied manufactured goods and credit to Southern planters — the excerpt does not address this issue.

14. Which of the following developments during the Reconstruction period after the Civil War demonstrated an effort to counteract the reforms of Radical Republicans?

  1. The federal appointment of provisional state governors
  2. The impeachment of Andrew Johnson
  3. The issuance of Black Codes
  4. The creation of the Freedmen’s Bureau
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. Black Codes were state laws passed in the South after the Civil War that limited the civil rights and liberties of African Americans. Radical Republicans were in favor of the expansion of rights for African Americans. Option A is incorrect because the appointment of provisional state governors by the federal government was a policy favored by some Radical Republicans who feared that governors elected by Southern voters might not be committed to the reform agenda supported by Radical Republicans. Option B is incorrect because the impeachment of Andrew Johnson was carried out by Radical Republicans, not in opposition to them. Option D is incorrect because the Freedman’s Bureau, a federal government agency set up to aid freed slaves, was supported by Radical Republicans.

Competency 008—(The United States as a World Power): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments related to the emergence and role of the United States as a world power and the effects of major decisions and conflicts on the United States.

15. Which of the following was a significant objection raised by members of the United States Senate to joining the League of Nations after World War I?

  1. It did not require reparations to be paid by Germany
  2. It could entangle the United States in future European military conflicts
  3. It took away the president’s power to declare war
  4. It gave veto power over major policy decisions to China and the Soviet Union
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. In 1918 the United States Senate was concerned that Article 10 of the League Covenant might be used to commit American troops to war without congressional approval, and there was a general opposition to any American involvement in European affairs. Option A is incorrect because the Treaty of Versailles, one of the peace treaties that ended World War I, stipulated that reparations be paid by Germany. Option C is incorrect because the League of Nations did not affect powers given by the United States Constitution (Congress has the power to declare war, not the president). Option D is incorrect because issues of veto are associated with the United Nations, which was created at the end of World War II. The League of Nations allowed any member, regardless of status, to have veto power in certain situations.

16. Which of the following was a notable foreign policy success of President Richard Nixon’s administration?

  1. Establishing relations with the People’s Republic of China
  2. Winning the war in Vietnam
  3. Negotiating a peace accord between Israel and Egypt
  4. Isolating the Soviet Union from the world community
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct. Nixon’s 1972 visit to China marked the first time a United States president had visited the People’s Republic of China. The result of the meeting was an important diplomatic document known as the Shanghai Communiqué, which stated that it was in the interest of all nations for China and the United States to work toward the normalization of their relationship. Option B is incorrect because the United States did not win the war in Vietnam. The United States withdrew its forces from the conflict in 1973, and the government of South Vietnam, which the United States supported, fell to the Communist North Vietnamese in 1975. Option C is incorrect because the peace accord between Israel and Egypt, known as the Camp David Accords, was a foreign policy success for the Carter administration and were signed in 1979. Option D is incorrect because President Nixon improved relations with the Soviet Union rather than isolating it. During his administration, Nixon and Soviet leader Leonid Brezhnev reached agreements on trade and negotiated arms control treaties.

Competency 009—(Political, Economic and Social Developments from 1877 to the Present): The teacher understands significant political, economic and social developments in the United States from 1877 to the present.

17. A major goal of Progressive Era reformers such as Jane Addams and Jacob Riis was to overcome the

  1. socialist tendencies of most reformers in the United States at the time.
  2. use of social science to explain the nature and causes of poverty.
  3. spread of poverty amid conspicuous displays of wealth.
  4. expanding use of government regulation to address social ills.
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Option C is correct. The Progressive Era was a period of social activism and political reform from the 1890s to the 1920s in the United States. Reformers were committed to addressing the waste, inefficiency, corruption and increasing disparities in wealth inherited from the Gilded Age. Option A is incorrect because some of the prominent reformers of the Progressive Era were socialists or were sympathetic toward socialism and its supporters. Option B is incorrect because some reformers did use social science to explain the nature and causes of poverty. The Progressive Era brought about the modernization of research to the social science disciplines at emerging universities. Option D is incorrect because many Progressive reformers did want to expand government regulation to address social ills; e.g., the unionization of labor, regulation of the food industry and the prohibition of alcohol.

18. What was the purpose of the G.I. Bill of Rights passed by Congress in 1944?

  1. To provide educational and financial benefits to soldiers returning home from war
  2. To ensure that soldiers accused of war crimes received fair trials
  3. To support African-American veterans who faced discrimination after leaving the military
  4. To guarantee that members of the armed services had the same constitutional protections as civilians
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct. The G.I. Bill of Rights established a number of benefits for veterans, including tuition for college and subsidies for home mortgages. The bill was passed to allay concerns that returning soldiers would face poor prospects as the wartime economy shifted to peacetime production. The G.I. Bill of Rights enabled millions of veterans to obtain higher education and to become homeowners, boosting the United States economy significantly in the postwar years. Option B is incorrect. United States soldiers were not tried for war crimes during or after World War II. Option C is incorrect. Although many African-American veterans did in fact face discrimination after the war, the G.I. Bill of Rights was not intended to address this problem. Option D is incorrect. Members of the military were subject to the military justice system. The G.I. Bill of Rights did not deal with this issue.

Domain III—Texas History

Competency 010—(Exploration and Colonization): The teacher understands significant historical developments and events in Texas through the beginning of the Mexican National Era in 1821.

19. Which of the following American Indian tribes inhabited present-day Texas and is best known for construction of ceremonial mounds?

  1. Caddo
  2. Pueblo
  3. Apache
  4. Comanche
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Option A is correct. The Caddo people are historically known for arranging soil and sediments into large mound structures. These structures served religious and residential purposes and were often used for ceremonial purposes too. Option B is incorrect. The Pueblo people are best known for their construction of communities of apartment-like structures made of stone, sediment and adobe mud. These communities became known by Spanish settlers as pueblos. Option C is incorrect. Apache groups used several types of housing structures, depending on what part of the southwestern United States that particular group lived in. These housing types included tepees, wickiups and hogans. Option D is incorrect. The Comanche people are historically known for their acquisition and domestication of horses. Using mounts, the Comanche people proved to be effective nomadic hunter-gatherers and did not build ceremonial mounds or other permanent structures.

20. To preserve the Spanish claims to land in Texas in the 1680s, Alonso de León was sent on several expeditions to

  1. capture American Indians for manual labor.
  2. destroy the French settlement at Fort St. Louis.
  3. found a Spanish settlement at the mouth of the Mississippi River.
  4. supply horses to American Indian groups and convince them to fight as Spanish allies.
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Option B is correct. In 1684 the French explorer Sieur de la Salle set out to establish a colony along the Mississippi River but ended up establishing Fort St. Louis on the Texas coast. When Spanish leaders heard rumors of a French settlement in Texas, they chose Alonso de León to lead an expedition to destroy the settlement. The first, second, and third expeditions were unsuccessful, but in 1689 de León finally discovered Fort St. Louis, which had by that time been abandoned by the French. Option A is incorrect. While it is true that American Indians were sometimes captured and used as servants and that some American Indian groups sold slaves to the Spanish, Alonso de León’s mission did not involve the capturing of American Indians for manual labor. Option C is incorrect. While the Spanish explorer Hernando de Soto was the first European to cross the Mississippi River in the 1500s, he saw the river as more of an obstacle to his main goal further west. After a century of virtually no exploration of the area, the French explorer La Salle claimed much of the land along the river for France. De León was not tasked with founding a settlement at the mouth of the Mississippi. Option D is incorrect. American Indian groups such as the Comanche had domesticated horses before migrating to the southwest regions, and horses were the principal source of wealth for the nomadic groups on the Texas plains. Increasingly resistant to Spanish settlement in Texas, tribes such as the Comanche and Apache often fought openly against the Spanish, raiding their settlements and burning their missions. De León did not seek to supply the Indians with horses.

Competency 011—(Independence, Statehood, Civil War Reconstruction and Aftermath): The teacher understands significant historical developments and events in Texas from 1821 to 1900.

21. Which of the following was the most significant threat to the survival of the Republic of Texas?

  1. The expansion of slavery
  2. The discovery of oil
  3. The Córdova Rebellion
  4. The Santa Fe Expedition
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Option C is correct. In 1838 settlers in Nacogdoches discovered a plot between Mexican and American Indian groups to rebel against the new Republic of Texas. A prominent settler in Nacogdoches named Vicente Córdova had kept strong ties with the Mexican government and, in disagreement with the terms of Texas independence, planned a rebellion with help from the Cherokee. The rebellion aimed to overthrow the Texas Republic. Option A is incorrect. The 1836 Constitution of the Texas Republic instituted various measures to reduce the citizenship rights of free black citizens and promoted the introduction of new slaves into the Republic as cotton cultivation increased. The increased import and purchase of slaves during this period provided significant customs revenue to the government of the Republic. Option B is incorrect. The discovery of oil did not have any significant effects until the strike at Spindletop in 1901, long after Texas had ceased to be an independent republic. The Spindletop strike set Texas in motion to become the largest oil-producing state in the Union for several decades. This oil boom generated exceptional economic development. Option D is incorrect. The Santa Fe Expedition was an attempt by Republic president Mirabeau Lamar to increase trade with and through the New Mexico region and claim the Santa Fe Trail for the Republic of Texas. While the expedition itself was unsuccessful and increased tensions between the United States and Mexico, the survival of the Republic of Texas was not directly threatened.

22. During the Civil War, most of the fighting between Confederate and Union forces in Texas took place

  1. in the Gulf Coast region.
  2. along the border with the Indian Territory.
  3. along the length of the Rio Grande.
  4. on the western plains.
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Option A is correct. In the 1860s most of the population of Texas lived on or near the Gulf Coast, which was the site of most of the economic activity in the state. Four major Civil War battles took place there: the first and second battles of Sabine Pass and the first and second battles of Galveston. Option B is incorrect. Although some fighting took place in the Indian Territory (present-day Oklahoma), no major Civil War battles took place along the Texas border with the Indian Territory. Option C is incorrect. Only one major Civil War battle took place near the mouth of the Rio Grande: the Battle of Palmito Ranch. Option D is incorrect. Although there was considerable small-scale fighting on the western plains between White settlers and American Indians during the Civil War, there was no combat between Confederate forces and Union forces in this region.

Competency 012—(Texas in the Twentieth and Twenty-first Centuries): The teacher understands significant historical developments and events in Texas from 1900 to the present.

23. During World War II, Texas became instrumental in the war effort by

  1. vastly expanding its petroleum-refining industry to produce more fuel.
  2. mandating the strictest gas-rationing policy in the nation.
  3. becoming the center of research and development for the Manhattan Project.
  4. becoming the main base for antisubmarine warfare against the Germans.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct. With delays and stoppages in petroleum production and refining elsewhere in the world, Texas oil refineries began to operate at maximum capacity to meet the needs of the Allied war effort. Texan oil and fuel products made a major contribution to the eventual Allied victory. Option B is incorrect. Although the rationing of gasoline was originally mandated by seventeen Atlantic and Pacific Northwest states, rationing regulations were eventually taken over by the federal government under the Office of Price Administration, and gas rationing was not stricter in Texas than elsewhere. Option C is incorrect. Although the Pantex Ordnance plant in Amarillo would one day assemble nuclear weapons at its facilities, the plant primarily manufactured conventional bombs during World War II. The center for research and development of the first atomic bombs was in Los Alamos, New Mexico. Option D is incorrect. There was relatively little German submarine activity in the Gulf of Mexico during World War II, and Texas was too far from the main theater of action in the North Atlantic to serve as an important base for Allied planes or ships guarding merchant convoys and attacking German subs.

24. Which of the following Texans revolutionized medical care by inventing a major component of the heart-lung machine and making open heart surgery possible?

  1. Michael E. DeBakey
  2. Denton A. Cooley
  3. T. C. Hsu
  4. R. Lee Clark
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct. Cardiac surgeon Michael E. DeBakey is best known for inventing the roller pump, which later became an essential component of the heart-lung machine. This invention and its use in the heart-lung machine made open-heart surgery possible. Option B is incorrect. Denton A. Cooley is a heart surgeon most famous for performing the first implantation of a completely artificial heart. Option C is incorrect. T. C. Hsu is a cell biologist who correctly determined the number of chromosomes within the nucleus of a sperm or egg cell. Option D is incorrect. R. Lee Clark is an oncologist who worked to advance cancer prevention and control throughout the world.

Domain IV—Geography, Culture and the Behavioral and Social Sciences

Competency 013—(Physical Geography Concepts, Natural Processes and Earth’s Physical Features): The teacher understands basic geographic concepts, natural processes involving the physical environment and Earth’s physical features.

Use the information on the map of Texas below to answer the question that follows.

Picture of texas with eastern portion filled in black.

25. The shaded region on the map represents which of the following climate zones?

  1. Warm semiarid
  2. Humid continental
  3. Humid subtropical
  4. Mediterranean
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. This region is hot and humid most of the year with warm winters. The shaded region on the map is affected by warm, moist air rising off the Gulf of Mexico, which circulates in a pattern from south to northeast. This pattern causes the eastern part of the state to have relatively high levels of precipitation compared to western Texas. Option A is incorrect. Warm semiarid climates are found in southwestern and western Texas and feature relatively low annual rainfall amounts (less than twenty inches of rain per year). Option B is incorrect. Continental climates are those regions that are mostly unaffected by marine weather patterns. These climates feature extreme differences between summer and winter temperatures, with very hot summers and very cold winters, and are found in regions such as the American Midwest. Option D is incorrect. Mediterranean climates have mild, wet winters and long, dry summers. In the United States, this climate is found in coastal California.

26. A map scale of 1:4,000,000 represents

  1. one inch on the map for every 4,000,000 feet on the ground.
  2. one inch on the map for every 4,000,000 inches on the ground.
  3. one centimeter on the map for every 4,000,000 meters on the ground.
  4. one centimeter on the map for every 4,000,000 kilometers on the ground.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. Geographers express the scale of a map as a simple ratio of a length on the map to the length it represents on the actual ground. Thus, on a map drawn to 1:4,000,000 scale, one inch on the map represents 4,000,000 inches on the ground; one centimeter represents 4,000,000 centimeters, etc. Options A, C and D are all incorrect expressions of the ratio because they combine different units of length.

Competency 014—(Global and Regional Patterns of Culture and Human Geography): The teacher understands global and regional patterns of culture and characteristics and processes associated with different cultural regions.

27. Which of the following best represents an application of the geographic principle of region?

  1. Using a map to identify patterns of erosion in a local floodplain
  2. Constructing a grid and labeling key reference points such as the equator, prime meridian and International Date Line
  3. Using a chart to show how out-migration has affected a city over time
  4. Constructing a table of several countries and listing common political, social and economic characteristics
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct. Constructing such a table enables the identification of the common factors that give a group of countries a distinct regional identity or the specification of a characteristic that is common across country boundaries. Option A is incorrect because such an activity does not employ the geographic concept of formal region. Option B is incorrect because this activity helps determine the absolute location of a place, not define a region. Option C is incorrect because this activity serves as a data analysis but is not part of recognizing or defining a region.

28. A country is most likely to join the European Union for which of the following reasons?

  1. So that its citizens can use the same currency when traveling to other European countries
  2. So that it can exercise more economic power in the world market
  3. So that it can take unilateral military action to protect its interests
  4. So that it can have the assurance of retaining its unique culture
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. The European Union, an economic union that developed out of earlier western European free-trade organizations, aimed to abolish trade barriers and encouraged the free movement of goods, people and labor within the union. The EU acts as a common market and member states benefit from being part of a much larger economic unit. Option A is incorrect because not all EU members use the same currency. Though many members do use the euro, some (most notably the United Kingdom) continue to use their own currency for domestic transactions. Option C is incorrect because the ability to take unilateral military action would not be enhanced by joining the EU. The EU emphasizes multilateral cooperation, and does not currently have direct authority over member states’ military affairs, but joining the EU would probably lessen a country’s ability or willingness to take unilateral military action. Option D is incorrect because the desire to preserve a unique culture would be unlikely to motivate a country to join the EU. Critics of the EU have argued that the free movement of goods and people in fact has a tendency to break down local cultures and threatens individual countries in Europe with a kind of cultural homogenization.

Competency 015—(Interactions between Human Groups and the Physical Environment): The teacher understands the nature and significance of interactions among peoples, places and environments.

29. Commercial agriculture is most often practiced on farms where

  1. a family or village community produces a crop for its own use.
  2. no chemical fertilizers or pesticides are used.
  3. humans and animals perform intense physical labor.
  4. a single crop is grown for sale and processing.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct. A common type of commercial agriculture features the production of a single crop (monoculture) for sale to processors. Monoculture is often more efficient than producing multiple crops on the same farm. Option A is incorrect because this option describes subsistence agriculture. Option B is incorrect because although there is an expanding organic agricultural sector that seeks to minimize or eliminate the use of chemical pesticides, herbicides and fertilizers, most commercial agricultural enterprises continue to use them. Option C is incorrect because most commercial agriculture today is mechanized to a great extent, thereby greatly reducing the need for humans or animals to perform intense, sustained, physical labor.

Competency 016—(Sociological, Anthropological and Psychological Concepts and Processes): The teacher applies sociological, anthropological and psychological concepts and processes to understand cultural formation and change, intergroup relations and individual development.

30. When people imitate the way celebrities dress, act or talk, it is an example of which of the following?

  1. Classical conditioning
  2. Operant conditioning
  3. Social learning theory
  4. Insight learning
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Option C is correct because social learning theory involves people learning by observing models and imitating them. Option A is incorrect because in classical conditioning, a response that is produced reflexively to a given stimulus is paired with a neutral stimulus until the neutral stimulus alone produces the response. Option B is incorrect because in operant conditioning, a person’s behavior increases or decreases depending on whether it is reinforced or punished. Option D is incorrect because in insight learning, the answer to a problem comes to the person without trial and error or repeated attempts.

Domain V—Government and Citizenship

Competency 017—(Democratic Principles and Government in the United States): The teacher understands the principles of democratic government and the structure and functioning of government in the United States.

31. Which of the following statements correctly explains how the United States Constitution may be amended?

  1. The president may propose an amendment, and Congress must ratify it by a supermajority vote
  2. Congress may propose an amendment by a two-thirds vote, and three-fourths of the states must ratify it
  3. Three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, and the Supreme Court must ratify it by a two-thirds vote
  4. Three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, and the president must ratify it
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Option B is correct. The process by which the United States Constitution may be amended is outlined in Article V of the Constitution. Option A is incorrect. The president does not propose amendments to the Constitution. A Congressional supermajority vote is not required to pass an amendment. Option C is incorrect. While Article V of the Constitution states that three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, the amendment cannot be ratified by the Supreme Court. Proposed amendments are ratified by a national convention. Option D is incorrect. While Article V of the Constitution states that three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, the amendment cannot be ratified by the president. Amendments proposed by the states must be ratified by a national convention.

32. Which of the following is the purpose of the due process clause in the Fifth Amendment?

  1. To ensure that similar crimes have similar penalties
  2. To guarantee that all citizens follow the law
  3. To protect those accused of crimes
  4. To guarantee trial by jury
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. The United States Constitution guarantees that legal proceedings be fair and that those accused of crimes be given notice and an opportunity to be heard in trial before being convicted. Furthermore, the United States Constitution guarantees that all suspects are held as innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt in court. Option A is incorrect. Due process of law does not refer to the magnitude or type of penalties for crimes. The Eighth Amendment protects citizens from cruel and unusual punishments. This amendment prevents such penalties as excessive fines, torture and arbitrary punishments. Option B is incorrect. The Fifth Amendment does not establish measures to ensure that all citizens follow the law. Regulating the behavior of citizens through the enforcement of consequences is a core function of legal authority. Option D is incorrect. The Fifth Amendment does not guarantee the right to trial by jury; that guarantee is granted by the Sixth Amendment.

Read the list of statements below and answer the question that follows.

  • Some powers are delegated, such as declaring war and coining money.
  • Some powers are reserved, such as establishing schools and conducting elections.
  • Some powers are shared, such as raising taxes and borrowing money.

33. The list above describes features of which of the following principles of the Constitution?

  1. Federalism
  2. Rule of law
  3. Popular sovereignty
  4. Individual rights
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Option A is correct. The term "federalism" refers to the evolving relationship between state governments and the federal government of the United States. In the United States, some powers are shared between the state and federal governments, and some powers are exclusive to the state governments or to the federal government. Option B is incorrect. The term "rule of law" refers to the process whereby governments make decisions based on established legal principles. In the United States, the legal principles by which the government makes its decisions are outlined in the United States Constitution. Option C is incorrect. The term "popular sovereignty" refers to the principle that the legitimacy of the government is created and sustained by the consent of its citizens and that citizens are the source of political power. Option D is incorrect. Citizens of the United States are guaranteed certain individual rights by the United States Constitution and the Bill of Rights. These individual rights cannot be expanded or taken away by any level of government without amending the Constitution.

34. The passage of the Twenty-second Amendment, which limits the number of terms a president can serve, was in reaction to the administration of which of the following presidents?

  1. William McKinley
  2. Woodrow Wilson
  3. Franklin Roosevelt
  4. Harry Truman
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. The Twenty-second Amendment was passed in response to Franklin Roosevelt’s four consecutive terms as president of the United States. Although the Constitution as originally written contained no limitation on the number of times the same person could be elected president, George Washington’s refusal to run for a third term in 1796 set a precedent that was generally respected until Franklin Roosevelt’s administration. After serving the country for two terms from 1933 to 1940, Roosevelt broke with tradition and was re-elected in 1940 and again in 1944 but died in office in April 1945. Supporters of Roosevelt cited the Great Depression and the war in Europe as justifications, but after his death, Congress and state legislatures amended the Constitution out of concern that a multi-term president might become too powerful. Option A is incorrect because William McKinley was assassinated in September 1901, early in his second term, long before the amendment was ratified. Option B is incorrect because Woodrow Wilson only served two terms from 1913 to 1921 and retired after his second term. Option D is incorrect. Although the Twenty-second Amendment was ratified in 1951 during Harry Truman’s presidency, it was not a direct response to his administration, but instead a response to the actions of his predecessor, Franklin Roosevelt.

Competency 019—(Types of Political Systems): The teacher understands the development of political systems and the similarities and differences among major historical and contemporary forms of government.

Read the list of statements below and answer the question that follows.

  • Signed in 1215
  • Affirmed feudal rights
  • Granted certain rights to nobles and all free men
  • Required the monarch to obey the law

35. Which of the following is the best title for the above information?

  1. Justinian Code
  2. Magna Carta
  3. Hammurabi’s Code
  4. Mayflower Compact
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. Issued by King John of England in 1215 A.D. under pressure from rebellious noblemen, the Magna Carta affirmed the rights of feudal lords and granted barons the power to collectively overrule the will of the king. Article 29 of the Magna Carta grants that free men were also not to be denied justice by the king. Option A is incorrect. Justinian’s Code was released as a collection of fundamental works in jurisprudence between 529 and 534 A.D. This code predated feudalism and is better known for setting precedents for international law. Option C is incorrect. Hammurabi’s Code was issued circa 1750 B.C., predating feudal practices. The code distinguished the rights of the people based on the social status of slaves and free persons, and the code placed no limitations on monarchs. Option D is incorrect. The Mayflower Compact was signed in 1620 A.D. The compact made no affirmation of feudal rights, and it did not have the legal power to require a monarch to obey the law. The Compact did, however, set forth the principle of equality among all citizens.

36. The United States Supreme Court cited the idea of separate but equal to justify the decision in which of the following cases?

  1. Plessy v. Ferguson
  2. McCulloch v. Maryland
  3. Dred Scott v. Sandford
  4. Texas v. White
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Option A is correct. The Supreme Court decision in Plessy v. Ferguson upheld the constitutionality of state laws requiring racial segregation in public facilities under the doctrine of separate but equal, first established by the Morrill Act of 1890. Option B is incorrect. The Supreme Court decision in McCulloch v. Maryland concerned the taxation of all bank notes not chartered in Maryland, including those notes chartered by the Second Bank of the United States. The court’s decision invoked the necessary and proper clause of the Constitution to uphold the principle that state action may not impede the implied powers of Congress. Option C is incorrect. The Supreme Court decision in Dred Scott v. Sandford rejected the claim that a slave residing in a free territory would automatically become free. This decision was made on the basis that slaves were not considered citizens. Option D is incorrect. The Supreme Court decision in Texas v. White concerned the sale of United States bonds by the state of Texas, which had seceded from the Union.

Domain VI—Economics and Science, Technology and Society

Competency 020—(Economic Concepts and Types of Economic Systems): The teacher understands basic economic concepts, major developments in economic thought and various types of economic systems.

Use the information in the foreign exchange graph below to answer the question that follows.

US dollars, and Quantity of Japanese yen graph. <

37. The graph above shows the supply (S) and demand D base 1 and D base 2 curves of the Japanese yen in the foreign exchange market. Which of the following transactions could cause the change in the international value of the Japanese yen relative to the United States dollar that is shown by the shift from D base 1 and D base 2 on the graph?

  1. Japanese firms increase their imports of iron ore from the United States
  2. United States firms increase their exports of cars to Japan
  3. Japanese tourists visit a theme park in the United States
  4. United States consumers buy more toys produced in Japan
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct. An increase in United States imports from Japan will increase the demand for the Japanese yen (shifting the demand from D base 1 and D base 2), thereby causing the Japanese yen to appreciate against the dollar. Alternatively, the increase of United States imports from Japan would increase the supply of dollars, causing it to depreciate against the yen. Option A is incorrect. An increase in Japanese imports from the United States will increase the demand for the United States dollar, not the Japanese yen, thereby causing the dollar to appreciate against the Japanese yen. Alternatively, the increase in Japanese imports from the United States would increase the supply of the yen, causing it to depreciate against the dollar. Option B is incorrect. An increase in United States exports to Japan will increase the demand for the United States dollar, not the yen. Option C is incorrect. Japanese tourism in the United States is considered a service import by the United States and will increase the demand for the United States dollar, not the Japanese yen, thereby causing the dollar to appreciate against the Japanese yen.

38. In a competitive market the equilibrium price of a good is determined by the interaction of supply and demand. If the price of a good is above the market equilibrium, there will be a

  1. shortage of the good in the market because the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
  2. shortage of the good in the market because the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.
  3. surplus of the good in the market because the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
  4. surplus of the good in the market because the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct. A surplus of the good is created when the price is set above the market equilibrium, resulting in the quantity supplied exceeding quantity demanded. Option A is incorrect. A shortage of the good is created when the price is set below the market equilibrium, resulting in the quantity demanded exceeding quantity supplied. Option B is incorrect. A shortage of the good is created when the price is set below the market equilibrium, resulting in the quantity demanded exceeding quantity supplied. Option C is incorrect. A surplus of the good is created when the price is set above the market equilibrium, resulting in the quantity supplied exceeding quantity demanded.

Use the table below, which contains macroeconomic data about a hypothetical country, to answer the question that follows.

Economic Indicators
Unemployment rate 9.6%
GDP growth rate −4.2%
Inflation rate 2.9%

39. The economy of the country described in the table is undergoing which stage of the business cycle?

  1. Expansion
  2. Peak
  3. Recovery
  4. Recession
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Option D is correct. The table shows that the country has a high unemployment rate, is experiencing contraction in its Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and has a relatively low inflation rate. Such types of data are typical of economies that are in the recession phase of the business cycle. Option A is incorrect because economies in the expansion phase of the business cycle typically have positive rates of GDP growth, lower unemployment, and sometimes have higher rates of inflation. Option B is incorrect because economies at the peak phase of the business cycle also typically have positive rates of GDP growth (though often lower than in the expansion phase), lower unemployment, and sometimes higher rates of inflation. Option C is incorrect because economies in the recovery phase of the business cycle typically have positive (or at least not so strongly negative) rates of GDP growth, lower unemployment, and sometimes higher rates of inflation. Also, it is a snapshot, so one cannot tell whether it is moving toward the trough or toward recovery.

Competency 021—(Structure and Operation of the U.S. Free Enterprise System): The teacher understands the structure and operation of the U.S. free enterprise system; the role of government, business, consumers and labor in the system; and basic concepts of consumer economics.

40. Which of the following is the main incentive for entrepreneurs to take risks to start a business?

  1. Profits
  2. Voluntary exchange
  3. Specialization
  4. Competition
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Option A is correct. Entrepreneurs take the risks of organizing productive resources to make goods and services. Profit is an important incentive that leads entrepreneurs to accept the risks of business failure. Option B is incorrect because voluntary exchange is the process of willingly trading one valuable commodity (good, service or resource) for another. Voluntary exchanges are the foundation of market transactions and what makes competitive markets efficient, but they are not the main incentive for entrepreneurs to start a business. Option C is incorrect because specialization occurs when people concentrate on producing goods or services or performing tasks they are good at, allowing them to produce more than they can consume. Specialization usually increases the productivity of workers and leads to increased interdependence among producers, but it is not the main incentive for entrepreneurs to start a business. Option D is incorrect because in economic terms, competition refers to the actions of two or more rivals in pursuit of the same objective. When they start new companies, entrepreneurs often begin to engage in competition with others, but in the economic model of entrepreneurial behavior, this is not the main incentive for starting a new business.

41. Assume that the demand for soft drinks is relatively inelastic. If the government imposes a per-unit tax on the sale of soft drinks, which of the following correctly identifies how the tax will affect the quantity demanded in the market and who will pay the largest portion of the tax?

Quantity Demanded Party that Pays Largest Portion Of tax
A. Will decrease Sellers
B. Will decrease Buyers
C. Will increase Buyers
D. Will increase Sellers
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. Imposing a per-unit tax on soft drinks will shift the supply curve to the left (or upward) by the amount of per-unit tax, resulting in a higher price to the consumers, thus decreasing the quantity demanded. Because the demand curve is relatively inelastic, buyers will be less responsive to the higher price of soft drinks that results from the tax. As a result, sellers will be able to pass the greater portion of the tax in the form a higher price on to buyers. Thus buyers will bear the larger portion of the tax burden. Option A is incorrect. Because the demand curve is relatively inelastic, buyers will be less responsive to the higher price of soft drinks that results from the tax. As a result, sellers will be able to pass the greater portion of the tax in the form a higher price on to buyers. Thus buyers will bear the larger portion of the tax burden, not sellers. Option C is incorrect. Imposing a per-unit tax on soft drinks will shift the supply curve to the left (or upward) by the amount of per-unit tax, resulting in a higher price to the consumers, thus moving upward along the demand curve and decreasing the quantity demanded, not increasing the quantity demanded. Option D is incorrect. Imposing a per-unit tax on soft drinks will lead to a decrease in the quantity demanded (not increasing the quantity demanded). Because the demand curve is relatively inelastic, buyers will pay the largest portion of the tax (not the sellers).

Competency 022—(Science, Technology and Society): The teacher understands major scientific and mathematical discoveries and technological innovations and the societal significance of these discoveries and innovations.

42. President Eisenhower signed the Federal-Aid Highway Act in 1956, which he promoted as a benefit to national defense. The act also had the benefit of promoting the national goal of

  1. price stability.
  2. full employment.
  3. economic freedom.
  4. economic efficiency.
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Option B is correct. Government spending on infrastructure projects such as roads increases aggregate demand and encourages firms to hire more workers to meet the higher demand, a process that can eventually lead to full employment. President Eisenhower and his advisors hoped to stimulate the economy with this infusion of government spending. Option A is incorrect because although government spending on infrastructure increases aggregate demand, it can also lead to higher prices. Option C is incorrect because the Federal Aid Highway Act in 1956 increased the size of the government, which may negatively affect individuals’ economic freedom. Option D is incorrect because economic efficiency refers to the use of resources to maximize the production of goods and services. An economic system is said to be economically efficient if no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off. Although President Eisenhower and his advisors hoped to see economic benefits by authorizing the construction of the highway system, they were not seeking economic efficiency in this sense.

Domain VII—Social Studies Foundations, Skills, Research and Instruction

Competency 023—(Social Studies Foundations and Skills): The teacher understands social studies terminology and concepts; the philosophical foundations of social science inquiry; relationships among and between social science disciplines and other content areas; and skills for resolving conflicts, solving problems and making decisions in social studies contexts.

43. A geography teacher is most likely to use the term "cultural convergence" when discussing

  1. contact and interaction between different cultures.
  2. restrictions on outside influence on a culture.
  3. the process by which values are transmitted across generations.
  4. the beliefs and values that distinguish a group of people.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct. The term "cultural convergence" refers to the idea that the availability of media such as the Internet, printed text, television and radio tends to provide groups of people from different regions more access to other cultures. Such access may lead to the adoption of cultural traits and cultural forms by different groups and may lead to greater cultural similarities. Option B is incorrect. If influence on cultures were restricted, the media by which cultural convergence take place would also be restricted. Option C is incorrect. This process is known as transmission and takes place when older generations teach younger generations about a shared culture or set of values. Transmission typically takes places within one culture, not between two different cultures. Option D is incorrect. This is simply a definition of the term "culture."

Competency 025—(Social Studies Research): The teacher understands social science and historical research methods, including procedures for formulating research questions and for organizing, analyzing, evaluating and reporting information.

44. A historian studying the impact of the Civil War on American society is most likely to ask which of the following research questions?

  1. How many Union soldiers died at the Battle of Gettysburg?
  2. How would Northern society have changed if the South had won the war?
  3. How did the South’s defeat shape the reconstruction of the Union?
  4. Was Abraham Lincoln a better commander in chief than Jefferson Davis?
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because it states a question that is both potentially answerable through historical research and that is a subsidiary and significant aspect of the larger topic mentioned in the question. Option A is incorrect because although it states a question that is potentially answerable through historical research, it is a relatively narrow topic and is only indirectly linked to the larger topic of the war’s impact on society. Option B is incorrect because it refers to a hypothetical, or counterfactual, situation that cannot be addressed satisfactorily through historical research. Option D is incorrect because it states a question that might be answerable through historical research but that does not directly pertain to the larger topic mentioned in the question.

45. Students benefit from constructing and using population pyramids to

  1. determine the social hierarchy of ancient civilizations.
  2. predict the future need for human services in a nation.
  3. analyze the changing racial and ethnic composition of select nations.
  4. compare and contrast different forms of government.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. Because a population pyramid displays the population of a country by age and gender, it would be possible to predict the future need for human services. For example, when a population pyramid shows a large number of young people and a smaller number of older people, it can be predicted that there will be more need for services like medical care and social security when that large group of young people comes to retirement age. Option A is incorrect. Population pyramids do not display information about social hierarchies. This information can be displayed in a simple chart. Option C is incorrect. Population pyramids do not include information about race and ethnicity. This information is typically displayed in pie charts. Option D is incorrect. Population pyramids do not include information about forms of government. Comparisons between forms of government are sometimes displayed in Venn diagrams or simple tables.

46. Which of the following documents is considered a secondary source?

  1. The Journal of American History
  2. The United States census
  3. Plato’s Republic
  4. The Treaty of Versailles
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct. The Journal of American History is a scholarly journal, or a peer-reviewed periodical, that serves as a forum for presentation and scrutiny of new and existing research. As such, it is considered a secondary source. Option B is incorrect. The United States census as a historical document is used as a source to determine information such as the population, ethnic and racial background, and economic status of people in the United States. This is an example of a primary source. Option C is incorrect. Plato’s Republic is considered a primary source. Written in Athens in the fourth century B.C., the Republic is often used by historians to examine ancient Greek ideas about politics, justice and ethics. Option D is incorrect. The Treaty of Versailles was one of the peace treaties signed at the end of World War I. It is considered a primary source because it documents direct evidence of activities or agreements between nations at the particular time that it was created.

47. A researcher is examining students’ study habits and their impact on academic performance. To identify the relationship between time spent studying outside class and final exam score, a researcher is mostly likely to employ which of the following research designs?

  1. Naturalistic observation
  2. Case study
  3. Correlational study
  4. Longitudinal study
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct. As part of a systematic study of the research project described in the question, the most effective and efficient approach would be to examine the correlation between time spent studying and exam results, establishing data for each student individually and then aggregating the data. Option A is incorrect because observation of subjects in their natural environment, if needed at all, would be more appropriate for the data-collection phase of the project if the researcher had concerns about the reliability of self-reported data about study time. Option B is incorrect because a case study, which typically focuses on an individual subject or a small group of subjects, would not be likely to result in a broad enough sample. Option D is incorrect because a longitudinal study involves establishing repeated correlations between the same phenomena over an extended period of time, which is not necessary for the research project as described in the question.

Competency 026—(Social Studies Instruction and Assessment): The teacher understands the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS) in social studies; knows how to plan and implement effective social studies instruction, including helping students make interdisciplinary connections and develop relevant reading skills; and knows procedures for assessing students’ progress and needs in social studies.

48. Which of the following activities best encourages reflective thinking by students participating in a mock election in their civics class?

  1. Predicting the outcome of the election using polling data
  2. Writing a journal entry describing the reasons behind their vote
  3. Making a campaign poster in support of a candidate
  4. Researching the outcomes of past presidential elections
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct. Writing a journal entry describing the reasons behind their vote would require students to consider their own reasoning for casting their votes based on the facts and ideas they shared with the candidates they chose. Option A is incorrect. Predicting the outcome of an upcoming election does not require students to consider their decisions based on their knowledge and ideas. Option C is incorrect. Although this activity involves artistic creativity and requires an understanding of the purpose of campaign posters, it does not require the deeper reflection involved in keeping a journal. Option D is incorrect. This activity requires research skills and inferences based on data from previous elections, but it does not require students to reflect on their own decisions in voting for a particular candidate.